1) If I were to file amended returns for 2000 and 2001 using an appropirate method for determining the cost basis of the sold shares I would be entitled to receive about $6. So my question is, can I simply forget about the $6, and claim "no harm, no foul", and move on?I vote "yes."2) I now want to sell the shares I bought with a broker in 1999. Will my error in #1 above prevent me from simply using the actual cost of those shares bought in 1999? I recommend that you add up the total invested through all sources, subtract the basis amounts that you used on your 2001 and 2002 sales, and use balance for this final sale.Phil
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