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Subject:  Re: Is man basically good? Date:  1/27/2001  12:32 PM
Author:  TwinDeltaTandem Number:  41598 of 198744

<<And yet Christ himself said (paraphrased) "Why do you call me good? No one but God is good." That pretty much settles that noone but God IS good


Could this have been Christ's way of saying that He is God? >>

Ihaselden's reply:

"NO"
_____

Consider these analyses:

Mark 10:18
nd Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.

The question, Why callest thou me good? was aimed at leading the young man to consider the true identity of Jesus. It was an indirect assertion of His deity, since goodness or sinlessness is a quality of God alone.
(from The Wycliffe Bible Commentary, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1962 by Moody Press)

Mark 10:17-31
(1.) By assisting his faith, v. 18. He called him good Master; Christ would have him mean thereby, that he looked upon him to be God, since there is none good but one, that is God, who is one, and his name one, Zech 14:9. Our English word God doubtless hath affinity with good; as the Hebrews name God by his power, Elohim, the strong God; so we by his goodness, the good God.
(from Matthew Henry's Commentary on the Whole Bible: New Modern Edition, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1991 by Hendrickson Publishers, Inc.)

Luke 18:18-21
Why callest thou me good? Jesus wanted to know whether the title was an idle compliment, or whether the young man had carefully thought through who He was.
(from The Wycliffe Bible Commentary, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1962 by Moody Press)

AND A MORE EVEN-HANDED ANALYSIS THAT SHOULD SIT WELL WITH MOST ON THIS BOARD:

Luke 18:19
Our Lord's response consists, first, of a hint by the way, founded on the appellation, "Good Master;" and next, of a direct reply to the inquiry itself. "Why callest thou me good? There is none good but One, [that is], God." Did our Lord mean by this to teach that God only ought to be called "good?" Impossible: for that had been to contradict all Scripture teaching and His own too. "A good man showeth favour and lendeth" (Ps 112:5); "A good man out of the good treasure of his heart, bringeth forth good things" (Matt 12:35); "Well done, good and faithful servant" Matt 25:21); "Barnabas was a good man, and full of the Holy Spirit" (Acts 11:24). Unless, therefore, we are to ascribe captiousness to our Lord, He could have had but one object-to teach this youth, on the one hand, that He declined to be classed along with other "good" people and "good masters;" and on the other hand, by reminding him that the only other sort of goodness, namely, supreme goodness, belonged to God alone, to leave him to draw the startling inference-that that was the goodness which belonged to Him. Unless this object is seen in the background of our Lord's words, nothing worthy of Him can be made out of this first part of His reply. But this hint once given, our Lord at once passes from it to the proper subject of the youth's inquiry.
(from Jamieson, Fausset, and Brown Commentary, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1997 by Biblesoft)


TDT

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