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|Subject: Re: Factor an additional 5% to RE - Reparations||Date: 3/27/2002 4:30 PM|
|Author: FoolishWarthog||Number: 64266 of 744175|
I would like payment from France for the land my family lost when the Normans invaded Britain in 1066.
I would like payment from Germany for the assets my grandparents lost in the invasion of Poland in 1939.
I would like payment from Russia for the assets my other set of grandparents lost from the Soviet 'occupation' of Lithuania.
Most of my antcesters on my dads side settled in Kentucky in the 1700's, so I guess the US owes me for assets lost in the Civil War.
My wife's dad is Irish, I guess England owes us for the occupation of Ireland.
My wife's mom is German...humm, payment from the Allies for the destruction of Germany during WWII?
The difference between the Holocaust settlements and the 'Slavery Reparations' issue is that the Holocaust took place within one generation, there were specific records, and distinct lines of responsability. If my grandparents were rich Jews in Poland, and they moved their money to a Swiss bank account. Why shouldn't I, as their heir, be able to withdraw the money?
I don't know the specifics of the Hococaust lawsuits, so I can't speak with authority, but it seems to me that we are talking about apples and oranges.
Like many other posters have said, the real winners here are the lawyers.
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