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Subject:  Re: Factor an additional 5% to RE - Reparations Date:  3/27/2002  5:07 PM
Author:  warrl Number:  64271 of 875664

I see this as having two problems. (And there may be more, but right now, I see two.) The first is this. According to the hypothesis, I am to take some African-American and imagine him (or her) under two different sets of assumptions: one assumption is that this person's ancestors were slaves, and the other assumption is that they were not slaves. (Presumably, on the second assumption, there was no slavery, and my imagined African-American is the descendant of immigrants--those same ancestors--who came here to America in some other way.)

Why would you assume that these ancestors would have come to America? Voluntary migration from sub-Saharan Africa to America and Europe was not common during the time period in question. The more likely case is that these ancestors came to America ONLY because they were captured by another black-African tribe and sold by that tribe to commercial slavers (also black-African) who transported them to the coast and sold them to white slavers; that otherwise they would have remained in Africa.

The logical comparison, then, is between descendants of American slaves living in America, and black Africans living in Africa.

Furthermore, because so many black Africans in Africa participated in the slave trade (and for that matter there are still black African slaves - in black Africa), the black Africans in Africa could reasonably be presumed to have benefitted from slavery as well.

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