The Motley Fool Discussion Boards
Financial Planning / Tax Strategies
|Subject: Re: Reverse mortgages||Date: 3/27/2012 7:38 PM|
|Author: ptheland||Number: 115672 of 121219|
I've never had to deal with one, so I'm just thinking out loud here.
It seems to me that most reverse mortgages allow the homeowner to continue occupying their home until some trigger event such as moving to a nursing home or assisted living, or dying.
So if the client was continuing to live in the house under the typical reverse mortgage terms, there would be nothing to report on her final return, as it would be her death that triggers the end of the reverse mortgage. Any impact would then end up on the estate's income tax return rather than a final 1040.
The alternative is that there was some triggering event before the client passed away. Then I think you'd use the normal home sale routine. If the house went directly to the mortgage holder, I'd guess the sale price would be the amount of the reverse mortgage. Somewhat like a foreclosure.
The interest isn't being paid, so I don't think there's mortgage interest deduction. Unless adding the interest to the loan balance counts as paying the interest. But that typically doesn't work for a negative amortization loan, so I don't see how it would work for a reverse mortgage.
|Copyright 1996-2014 trademark and the "Fool" logo is a trademark of The Motley Fool, Inc. Contact Us|