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Financial Planning / Tax Strategies
|Subject: Amateur legal opinions requested||Date: 6/22/2012 3:41 PM|
|Author: Goofyhoofy||Number: 116322 of 121585|
My sister-in-law took in my elderly father-in-law several years ago. Together they bought a modest house about two years ago. A year ago he took his name off the deed, so the house is now "hers."
Last week he had a(nother) stroke and is incapacitated. Applying to nursing homes, a question on the application is "In the last 60 months have you transferred significant assets to anyone?"
He has enough money to pay the nursing home for about 18 months to 2 years, depending. After that he would be on medicaid, which pays them less. The nursing homes will take him as "self pay" and then keep him as "medicaid" if it comes to that, but I'm sure they want to find out if someone has impoverished himself so that they get the "reduced" Medicaid rate sooner.
Other facts: The house was bought mostly, but not exclusively with "his" money. The first stroke was 20 years ago and was not incapacitating. This one is. He is 89.
I know what my answer is, but how would you answer the question?
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