The Motley Fool Discussion Boards
Financial Planning / Tax Strategies
|Subject: Re: Rental property loss?||Date: 2/11/2013 8:49 PM|
|Author: geocarw||Number: 117738 of 125423|
Line 20-adjusted property basis... zero(0)"
Not a response to you question, but your post causes me to ask how does a SFH ever have a zero basis?
SFH sits on land, worth something (even 20+ years ago), and is not depreciated (as I understand the rules).
My understanding... the value of land is not included in the basis of rental property therefore not depreciated. For tax purposes, when fully depreciated, there is no property basis, that's not to say there is no value. In fact there will come a time when sold, capital gains tax will surely want the full value.
I wish the county assessor would take this into consideration and recognize only the land value for RE tax purposes. :-)
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