The Motley Fool Discussion Boards
Financial Planning / Tax Strategies
|Subject: Re: A 2006 Invoice||Date: 7/8/2013 7:44 PM|
|Author: aj485||Number: 118808 of 120805|
This may not be the best board to ask this question, but do we have any obligation to pay a 2006 (7 yrs ago) invoice for a purchase that we don't recall?
Should I ask them for more information on what was the item purchased? Even if there was an item, how do I know it is not a bookkeeping error on their part and actually was paid? Or should I just politely tell them to forget it.
Unfortunately, furniture stores are notorious for offering deals that have no payments required until sometime far in the future (this weekend, I saw a furniture store that was offering "No payments until 2018"). This is often a reason that people will buy using store credit, instead of a credit card. If your wife did this, and there were, for instance, no payments due until, say, 2009 or later, this may be a legitimate debt that could still be within the statute of limitations in your state, and they may be able to sue you for the amount owed, plus interest/late fees and attorney fees.
Even if it's no longer within the statute of limitations, that doesn't prevent the lender from trying to collect on the debt, it just prevents them from suing you for it.
Because of the possibility that it could still be within the statute of limitations for your state, it would be best if you could find out if the debt was actually incurred by your wife. I would suggest starting the "Validation of Debt" process at this website http://www.creditinfocenter.com/rebuild/debt_validation.shtm... which includes asking for a copy of the original invoice that your wife signed, and the history of the account (statements sent, payments made, etc.) Once you get that information, and determine if the debt is valid, you can make an informed decision on what to do about the debt.
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