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Ah ok - I guess that's good but I'm still a bit confused. It seems I did understand the wording of that question correctly and answered it correctly, but something seems odd about that wording.

Here's what I'm thinking - if I bought shares, and then sold them for $1k loss, and THEN buy the same # of shares back, and sell only a fraction of this lot (ie: 1 share), I would have answered "yes" to that question - because it asked if I sold *SOME* or all of shares in this sale.. "some" being key word. And this is where TurboTax would recognize $1k as a loss fully (because answering yes makes TT say it's not a "wash sale").

Seems like a loophole here?
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