alchook:<<<Third, who can say with absolutely certainity that the employer-side tax savings would not be invested into the business, used to pay dividends to the investors of the business or bonues to management, as opposed to wages to employees?>>>"So if the government changed the law so the employer, rather than the employee, was responsible for all payroll and income taxes, do you think this would have any effect on wages?"First, given that people often have income unrelated to their employment, the question is only theoretical.Second, in response to your question, No, but that neither what I said nor the statement I challenged.The OP claimed that 100% of the employer paid taxes would have been received by him."Fact: I and my employers paid in over $65,000 to Medicare since 1966. If one calculates the time value of that money until today, I could have purchased private insurance superior to Medicare at age 65...and still had plenty to give to numerous charities.""That money" refers to the $65,000 paid by the OP and his employers.Are you claiming that OP (and in parallel, every other employee) every dollar in Medicare taxes by by an employer would 100% absolutely under all circumstances be paid to OP (and in parallel, every other employee).If yes, can you provide some proof?If not, why are you yanking my chain? Regards, JAFO
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