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As I understand the situation, your employer had accumulated $X in an account for you. This was not shares of stock, but plain old cash. Upon your separation the employer turned that $X into Y shares of stock. The gross $X was included in your income, so that's what you paid for the stock, regardless of what it's trading for on the day they issue it to you.

Actually, my employer had accumulated stock in that account (OK, stock "units", but there was no cash component). This employer match was by rule 100% in company stock, ala Enron. Does this make a difference to the argument?

Sorry to beat this issue to death but I would truly like to understand the situation, and the retirement plan "specialists" I spoke to are singularly unhelpful.


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