Message Font: Serif | Sans-Serif
No. of Recommendations: 1
Both of our family cars were in my soon to be ex-husband's name and so are the loans. I am trying to get one car in my name and since I do not have the capital to buy it outright, I planned to get another loan (in my name)which means I would have to pay sales tax again. This seems dumb, since we already paid sales tax on the car once. Is there any way to get around this, either by transferring title/lien in divorce decree or transferring before divorce?

This is going to depend on state/local law. Check with the office that handles registrations.

Phil Marti
VITA Volunteer
Print the post  


In accordance with IRS Circular 230, you cannot use the contents of any post on The Motley Fool's message boards to avoid tax-related penalties under the Internal Revenue Code or applicable state or local tax law provisions.
What was Your Dumbest Investment?
Share it with us -- and learn from others' stories of flubs.
When Life Gives You Lemons
We all have had hardships and made poor decisions. The important thing is how we respond and grow. Read the story of a Fool who started from nothing, and looks to gain everything.
Community Home
Speak Your Mind, Start Your Blog, Rate Your Stocks

Community Team Fools - who are those TMF's?
Contact Us
Contact Customer Service and other Fool departments here.
Work for Fools?
Winner of the Washingtonian great places to work, and Glassdoor #1 Company to Work For 2015! Have access to all of TMF's online and email products for FREE, and be paid for your contributions to TMF! Click the link and start your Fool career.