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I just want to check that I have this correct since I was doing DRIP on FO for awhile and may sell FBHS per TMFJMo recommendations. My broker indicated that they converted my 52.369 shares of FO into 52.369 shares of FBHS (on 10/4) and 52 shares of BEAM (on 10/10). My plan is to use the opening prices of FBHS and BEAM on 10/4 as the basis for determining how to allocate the original cost basis across FBHS and BEAM. Yahoo had those as $12.19 and $43.53 respectively. So cost basis for FBHS would be 12.19/55.72 * FO_cost_basis and BEAM would be 43.53/55.72* FO_cost_basis. There may be a cash-in-lieu for the missing 0.369 shares of BEAM. For that event I would use the cost basis of:
(43.53/55.72* FO_cost_basis) * 0.369/52.369.

Is that correct or do I need to worry about the period between 10/4-10/7 and price differences between those dates?

Thanks!
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