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I would greatly appreciate it if someone could
point me in the right direction with this one....

1/1/00  Buy 100 XYZ at 10 using Ameritrade account
2/1/00  Buy 100 XYZ at 20 using Datek account
3/1/00  Close Ameritrade account, 100 share XYZ
        transfered to Datek account.
4/1/00  Sell 100 XYZ at 30 using Datek account

There were no specific shares identified in any of
the transactions. How would the FIFO rule apply
here?  Have I sold the shares with a cost basis
of 10 because I bought them first, or have I 
sold the shares with a cost basis of 20 because
they were the first shares in my Datek account?

Many thanks for any suggestions !!
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