The background info....I bought a house in LA in 1999. I moved to TX in 2001. I owner financed the house in LA at that time. The person that "bought" the house in LA didn't make payments in a timely fashion and I recently repo'ed it and re-sold it.If I use the money from the sale of the LA house to pay for the house I am currently in, do I still pay capital gains?Thanks,Ginger
Best Of |
Favorites & Replies |
Start a New Board |
My Fool |
BATS data provided in real-time. NYSE, NASDAQ and NYSEMKT data delayed 15 minutes.
Real-Time prices provided by BATS. Market data provided by Interactive Data.
Company fundamental data provided by Mornings