CCinOC:foo1bar wrote: No. The lender's guidelines do NOT determine whether someone is an owner of a property - law determines that."Many lenders during the sub-prime lending frenzy wrote mortgages without having all the owners sign the note. In that case, the lender doesn't have full interest--only the interest of the person who signed the note."A full interest in what? Executng the Note does not convey, assign or lien any interest in real property (unless it is a very peculiar Note). Signing the note creates personal liability for the debt (subject to any state law limitations).Regards, JAFO
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