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foo1bar wrote: No. The lender's guidelines do NOT determine whether someone is an owner of a property - law determines that.

"Many lenders during the sub-prime lending frenzy wrote mortgages without having all the owners sign the note. In that case, the lender doesn't have full interest--only the interest of the person who signed the note."

A full interest in what? Executng the Note does not convey, assign or lien any interest in real property (unless it is a very peculiar Note).

Signing the note creates personal liability for the debt (subject to any state law limitations).

Regards, JAFO
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