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In 1998, I converted as much of my traditional IRA's as I could afford to pay the taxes on to a Roth IRA. I understand the logic of not converting if you have to use Traditional IRA money to pay the taxes on a conversion. However, as one approaches age 70 1/2 and mandatory withdrawls are approaching, then why not withdraw from the Traditional, use whatever money is required to pay the taxes on the withdrawl, and roll the rest into the Roth IRA? It would seem that there is a trade-off as to how many years in advance of mandatory withdrawls that one should begin a systematic rollover from Traditional to Roth.

I'm probably just the victim of my own fuzzy thinking here, but I'd sure like to hear some comments.

Please email me your comments, as well as responding here, since I don't get to check these message boards all that often. Thanks.
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