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I have stock x with a broker, but also have stock X in the company's DRIP plan.

Can I sell my stock with the broker as it's own defacto lot, and use its own cost basis independent of the DRIP plan shares?

And another question...First, I purchsed some Eastman Kodak several years ago through an on-line broker.

Then I enrolled in EK's DRIP plan and bought periodically for a while, and then due to the impemenation of new fees, I sold all the shares in the DRIP. But becuase the entire process initially involved the transfer of shares to another plan, the sale of fractional shares, and costs that were paid with the sale of plan shares, the process involved selling some shares in one year, and selling the rest in another. I used the average cost basis method for these shares, not realizing that I WAS NOT supposed to do this. I have since recaluculated the taxes owed/saved, and estimated that, if anything, the error was in the governments favor by about $6. Do I need to file amended returns, or should I not worry about it. I would REALLY rather not worry about it, but want to do things the right way.

Ok, but now I have those other shares of EK that I bought many years ago still with an on-line broker. I want to sell those shares. Can I simply use the cost basis of those particular shares when I sell?

Sorry for the long question, I hope I was able to explain myself clearly.
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