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Do shares acquired as a result of a stock split have a different cost basis than the original shares, or are they considered to have been purchased at the same time as the original shares?

For example, suppose I bought stock XYZ 2 years ago, and it splits. Do I now have both long-term and short-term shares in my position? If I were to sell a portion, would I have to designate which ones I'm selling for tax purposes?

Many thanks!
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