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From Pub 590:
"It must be used to pay qualified acquisition costs for the main home of a first-time homebuyer (defined later) who is any of the following.
a. Yourself.
b. Your spouse.
c. Your or your spouse’s child.
d. Your or your spouse’s grandchild.
e. Your or your spouse’s parent or other ancestor."

I believe this means my wife qualifies, because she had no interest in the home I owned previously.

However, the statement that "If you are married, your spouse must also meet this no-ownership requirement" does confuse me.

Am I just trying to interpret this to my advantage, or is it somewhat ambiguous?
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