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Author: FoolishMiser Add to my Favorite Fools Ignore this person (you won't see their posts anymore) Number: of 294  
Subject: Re: Use 401K as collateral? Date: 8/5/2011 1:41 AM
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Gene,

Granted, the so called "preliminary results" came out of a study conducted by the IRS itself.

This from an IRS memo describing the transaction:
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An individual establishes a shell corporation sponsoring an associated and purportedly qualified retirement plan. At this point, the corporation has no employees, assets or business operations, and may not even have a contribution to capital to create shareholder equity.

The plan document provides that all participants may invest the entirety of their account balances in employer stock.

The individual becomes the only employee of the shell corporation and the only participant in the plan. Note that at this point. there is still no ownership or shareholder equity interest.

The individual then executes a rollover or direct trustee-to-trustee transfer of available funds from a prior qualified plan or personal IRA into the newly created qualified plan. These available funds might be any assets previously accumulated under the individual’s prior employer’s qualified plan, or under a conduit IRA which itself was created from these amounts. Note that at this point, because assets have been moved from one tax-exempt accumulation vehicle to another, all assessable income or excise taxes otherwise applicable to the
distribution have been avoided.


The sole participant in the plan then directs investment of his or her account balance into a purchase of employer stock. The employer stock is valued to reflect the amount of plan assets that the taxpayer wishes to access.

The individual then uses the transferred funds to purchase a franchise or begin some other form of business enterprise. Note that all otherwise assessable taxes on a distribution from the prior tax-deferred accumulation account are avoided.

After the business is established, the plan may be amended to prohibit further investments in employer stock. This amendment may be unnecessary, because all stock is fully allocated. As a result, only the original individual benefits from this investment option. Future employees and plan participants will not be entitled to invest in employer stock.

A portion of the proceeds of the stock transaction may be remitted back to the promoter, in the form of a professional fee. This may be either a direct payment from plan to promoter, or an indirect payment, where gross proceeds are transferred to the individual and some amount of his gross wealth is then returned to promoter.
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Again, my original question to this forum began with an exploratory tone, looking to better understand the outer boundaries of a 401K. I hope that in answering my original post, you've learned something new today :).
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