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>I am trying to figure out how to estimate how much >taxable income will be added (to other taxable
> income -- e.g., employment wages, etc.) when shares >of a
> mutual fund are sold off completely.
> I'd like to know whether the following sequence of >calculations arrives at the correct figures. (I'm
> also assuming the only 'tax consideration' is the >'cost
> basis' appreciation of shares, since taxes on any >'dividend' income from the funds would have been
> paid in the year they were distributed -- am I right >or wrong there?)
> My idea of how to figure out the tax liability is as >follows:

If you're selling all your shares, there's a much simpler solution: Sales price - total of all purchase prices. (Include all monies paid with reinvested gains and dividends!)
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