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he did call it an act of terror.

Oh No He Di'in't...

In the transcript which Crowley used to exonerate him, the terrorism reference came in the context of the 9/11 2001 attacks-- furtherermore, in that same speech, he blamed the youtube video for the Libyan incident:


Neither the original post nor my response has the "he did call it an act of terror" phrase.

My point was that Romney would have had a much stronger argument pointing out Obama's mendacity, ie that Obama's "acts of terror" phrase referred to 9/11 rather than Benghazi, rather than the argument that the link of "act of terror" to Benghazi didn't come until 14 days later.

Why'd Romney do it that way?
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