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This is a question of idle curiosity which I have wondered about for a long time. I'm not planning on actually doing this.

I bought a condo in Boston in 1980 and lived in it for 4 years. I moved, but kept it, and it has been in rental for the past 30 years.

If I moved back into it and lived there for two years (following the "two of the last five years" rule) and established residency in Massachusetts, would it once again be eligible for the homeowner's exclusion from capital gains should I elect to sell it at the end of the two years (or more) and move elsewhere?
 
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