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*i* can't see any meaningful difference between this
example (buy 300, sell 100 at a loss) and AM's first
example (#19003: buy 200, sell 50)....

Good Gosh! Please tell me that it's not true! In this case, you could never divest yourself of a portion of your holdings (at a loss) if you feel you have made a mistake in purchasing too many of the same stock without ending up with a wash sale. Bummer. And, if this is true, I would have to sell my entire position in order to eliminate the wash. Big Bummer.
Bob? Are you there?

Also - how about this one (from my earlier post): What if I sell the offending 50 shares of YHOO (those that made the sale of the other 50 shares a wash sale) before this tax year ends. Does that eliminate the wash sale?

Thanks again.

AngelMay :o)
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