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I was answering the first poster's question ["RTFP"] which was, basically, "if you buy *200* shares and then sell *100* of those shares at a loss within 30 days after the buy, don't you have a wash sale?"

I was trying to say, no, you don't have a wash sale, and then *give*some*support* for my answer, which got a mixed reaction in replies on the boards.

I see what you are saying. Wouldn't it have been easier/clearer just to say since there was no buy to recover the position on the sale of the 100 shares there cannot be a wash sale?
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