I would greatly appreciate it if someone could point me in the right direction with this one.... 1/1/00 Buy 100 XYZ at 10 using Ameritrade account 2/1/00 Buy 100 XYZ at 20 using Datek account 3/1/00 Close Ameritrade account, 100 share XYZ transfered to Datek account. 4/1/00 Sell 100 XYZ at 30 using Datek account There were no specific shares identified in any of the transactions. How would the FIFO rule apply here? Have I sold the shares with a cost basis of 10 because I bought them first, or have I sold the shares with a cost basis of 20 because they were the first shares in my Datek account? Many thanks for any suggestions !!Cost basis 10. When you put the Ameritrade shares in the Datek account they became *your* FIFO, because they became your oldest shares in the account you sold from. ed
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