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Author: edcosoft Big red star, 1000 posts Old School Fool Add to my Favorite Fools Ignore this person (you won't see their posts anymore) Number: of 121482  
Subject: Re: Capital Gains with Broker Transfer Date: 2/9/2001 5:13 PM
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I would greatly appreciate it if someone could
point me in the right direction with this one....

1/1/00 Buy 100 XYZ at 10 using Ameritrade account
2/1/00 Buy 100 XYZ at 20 using Datek account
3/1/00 Close Ameritrade account, 100 share XYZ
transfered to Datek account.
4/1/00 Sell 100 XYZ at 30 using Datek account

There were no specific shares identified in any of
the transactions. How would the FIFO rule apply
here? Have I sold the shares with a cost basis
of 10 because I bought them first, or have I
sold the shares with a cost basis of 20 because
they were the first shares in my Datek account?

Many thanks for any suggestions !!

Cost basis 10. When you put the Ameritrade shares in the Datek account they became *your* FIFO, because they became your oldest shares in the account you sold from. ed
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