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I'm responding to this post, as no one else has and wanted to kick-start the thread, as I'm interested in brwhiz' questions.

What he's proposing appears to be a way around the $3K (or more for the over 50 crowd) limitation on Roth contributions. Yes, I realize that conversions are not contributions, but in this case it would amount to the same thing done over and over, yes?

I think I understand that one cannot convert a 401(k) balance while still employed at the same employer, so is this a loophole that allows those working for not-for-profits to do just that? If so, doesn't really seem fair to me.

That's why I'm curious to see what the answers are. (Unless I've completely misunderstood the questions/situation.)

TIA
3MM
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