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[[In your March 19,1998 article you gave an example whereas the seller of his home then buys
another home and sells it in the same year and gets to totally exclude that profit (meeting the
necessary limit) as well as the gain from the sale of his first home.
By - passing the 2 year must live in the house rule.
Was this because the sale of both homes took place in the same calendar year?]]

That was a three part article...and I don't remember the specific example. If you want to point out that example to me, I'll be glad to comment.

But I believe that you are speaking to the issue of selling a property using the OLD rules, and then selling the rollover property in the near future.

The law allows you to "tack on" your holding period if you sell under the old rules. Which means that the first home that you sell under the "new" laws doesn't have to be held, necessarily, for the full two year period, if it was a product from a prior rollover.

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