inparadise: "And it can be impressive what was not found out in the not so distant past. Case in point, the seller of this property gave deeded right of river access to the people he sold the lot with the well to, probably in the 1990's. Yes, the ones who have right of first refusal on the sale of his property. Problem is, it was not his to give."I am not following. Could you elaborate?If I understand correctly, the seller of the current property could have given an easement over it so that the lot with the well (and the right of refusal) have access to the river. Or not?Regards, JAFO
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