Joel,I'm wondering about hits as I sold some Jan, 13 puts and the price of the stock is now below what I sold them for.I would not mind at all taking ownership of the stock even at a lower price though I understand I will be at a loss if the options are exercised, or "put" to me.What I am curious about is this. Lets say I sold the options for $1 and they expire in the money at $1.50.If the stock is not put to me, and I have already collected my $1 when I first sold the puts, and they expire at $1.50, am I required to pay the .50 difference?Or if it seems they are going to expire at that price closer to Jan expiration will the stock be put to me?It seems to me since the options are now worth more and the stock price is below my strike the stock could be put to me at any time, just curious why it hasn't been, or is that common.Thanks.
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