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I do not think this will be a FAQ. I believe I read in Barron's one time that if you sell on option on a stock that you have owned the 1 year LT Capital Gains requirement would start from the time you sold this option even if this stock had already been held for a year. My accountant was not aware of this which made me question two things. 1.) Was I correct in my understanding of the Barron's article? 2.) Is my accountant knowledgeable in stock and option transactions and their tax ramifications? Is the type of option sigmificant if this is true? Does it matter if you write or buy the option? Does anyone out there feel qualified to answer this or could you refer me to a source that could. Thank you. It's great having these type of forums to turn to to try and get questions answered.

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