Capital 'gains' from profitable mutual fund transactions are taxable to investors in the year that they occur. If a fund has *lost* value in a given calendar year, why are its capital 'losses' apparently not passed through to investors so that the capital gains they are taxed on can be offset by those losses? Or are they? (If they are, where can I find information about this?) Thanks.
Best Of |
Favorites & Replies |
Start a New Board |
My Fool |
BATS data provided in real-time. NYSE, NASDAQ and NYSEMKT data delayed 15 minutes.
Real-Time prices provided by BATS. Market data provided by Interactive Data.
Company fundamental data provided by Morningstar. Earnings Estimates, Analyst Ra