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Normally a 401k would be pre-tax money and the IRA would have no basis.
While you had your 401k, you could also have contributed to a traditional IRA. If in fact you did put in about $2000 of after-tax money annually in an IRA, those contributions would be your "basis".
If your 401k contained some after-tax money, that would also be a part of "basis".
The idea is to separate out money on which you have already been taxed from money on which you have not. It will matter when you start taking distributions.
In your 401k rollovers, probably "basis" does not apply and yours is probably zero.
Best wishes, Chris
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