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On Wed, 28 May 97 02:11:00 -0600, MontanaFool wrote:
<<On Tue, 27 May 97 12:47:15 -0600, TMFTaxes wrote:

<<On Fri, 23 May 97 17:12:24 -0600, ORWAHOO wrote:
I plan on investing over a period of time (dollar cost averaging). I'll immediately put 20% into BTD stocks and perhaps short 10-20%. Then, every month or two, I'll buy a block of stock worth about $7,000. Over a 12-24 month period, I plan on eventually fully investing him in stocks.
It may not be a tax question but why would anyone want to do this in the first place instead of immediately becomming fulling invested in stocks with all available funds. For me, 'dollar cost averaging' is something one does with future income over many years. What do I fail to understand here? Thanks.

Fooling in the Flathead

Tom Kuffel,
Perhaps he wants to give his brother, the stock-broker, a present by paying more commissions than necessary. They raise the cost-basis of his purchases and thereby lower the eventual capital-gains tax (by reducing the profits or increasing the losses, as the case may be).
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