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In all of the stupid daytrading I have done in 1999, I was out of every position by November 1st except for one.

1. I believe the wash rule does NOT apply (in all but the one) since I was out of my positions at least 31 days before the end of the year, correct? Well, when I compute the sales on my Schedule D, do I simply ignore the wash rule then, or do I have to do all the cost basis adjustments so that the wash sale rule will have been nullified (same net result, but a lot more complex return)? If the end result is the same, does it really matter?

2. The one position I traded was within the 31 days of the end of the year. I basically daytraded a huge loss and finally sold off my positions on 12/30/99. Although that sale did occur in the last 31 days of the year, I have not bought the same stock since. My question... Does the 30 day rule span different years? In other words, since I did not rebuy the stock after the last sale on 12/30, is this a wash sale, or do the 30 days afterwards in which I cannot rebuy HAVE to fall in the same year?

Thanks a million for the quick answers.
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