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Thanks for the reply but I am still a little confused.
What you described is the method almost all credit cards use( except Optima ), isn't it ? My biggest question is " AM I PAYING THE INTEREST TWICE ON A GIVEN AMOUNT(minus the amount paid) "

Tell me, if I transfer $ 6000.00 from 14.9% to this card (3.9% for 5 months followed by 9.99 %) and I make sure the payments are mailed as soon as I receive the bill and never make a purchase or cash advance till I pay in full, will it be profitable ?

Also, thank you for correcting me on being a Fool.

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