No. of Recommendations: 1
"Dollar cost averaging in a fluctuating sideways market lowers the average cost per share purchased. The greater the volatility, the better--during accumulation."

Can you explain the bolded phrase, please? Is there a formula that describes this in a mathematical manner? My common sense tells me that for a given rate of return, smoother (less volatile) is better, regardless of accumulation/de-cumulation phase.
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