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Recommendations: 0
Re EK and DRIPs, you really have me confused here.
Ok. In 1999 I bought some kodak shares with a broker. Then, in 2000, I started a DRIP though Kodak. In late '00, Kodak terminated their DRIP, so I transfred over to Buyandhold.com. This process involved selling some fractional shares. In addition, there was a mistake where they only transfered PART of my holdings. So the easiest thing to so was simply SELL what was left in the previous account. Also, there was a selling fee, paid for by selling shares. So in 2000, there were 3 "sell" transactions to report. I reported these by using the "average cost basis method" as if EK were a mutual fund. I since have learned I cannot use average basis for stocks. After that, in 2001, I sold the remaining shares of EK that I had at buyandhold.com. Again I used the average cost basis method.
So now the only shares of EK I have left are the ones I bought in 1999 through my original broker.
1) If I were to file amended returns for 2000 and 2001 using an appropirate method for determining the cost basis of the sold shares I would be entitled to receive about $6. So my question is, can I simply forget about the $6, and claim "no harm, no foul", and move on?
2) I now want to sell the shares I bought with a broker in 1999. Will my error in #1 above prevent me from simply using the actual cost of those shares bought in 1999?
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