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Hey, folks...

Probably a simple question with a simple answer but first time I've had to deal with this one: Had shares of Netscape which, as you know, got absorbed by AOL on a 0.9 to 1 basis. So, I now have a few fewer shares plus cash for the odd amount that they don't convert to shares. Anyway, what's the cost basis I use for cap gains purposes on this matter? The original cost of my Netscape shares (except a fewer number used as the quantity), or the merged share value & number of AOL shares following the merger?

Hope that's clearer than it reads. Thanks a bunch!
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