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I am having trouble finding confirmation that there's a minimum of one year that has to pass between when someone recharacterizes a Roth back to traditional (tech fund lower now than when we converted it) and when it can then be re-converted back to this true?

We would owe significant taxes this year because it was converted as of 12/31/99 (silly--my DH forgot to do it earlier--argh) but we're trying to figure out if there's a way to get the balance down to what it probably will be for the next few weeks or months and pay taxes on that. If we have to wait until April of next year it'll probably be up again.

Does this make sense to anyone? If so, PLEASE help. Or if I can clarify, I'd be glad to.

Thanks in advance,
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