Message Font: Serif | Sans-Serif
 
No. of Recommendations: 0
My wife owns half of a mother-daughter with her sister. Currently my in-laws occupy my wife's half of the mother-daughter home which my wife rents to them. In two years the mortgage will be paid off and we will no longer charge the in-laws any rent. If the home is sold, is there any way, short of us actually moving into the home, to exclude the gain realized if the home is sold? Thanks....
Greg
Print the post Back To Top
No. of Recommendations: 0
My wife owns half of a mother-daughter with her sister.

Rental property isn't my strongest suit, but since I'm dying to know, and the information might help someone who could give you good information, what in the world is a mother-daughter? I'm sure it's some sort of real estate, but for me it just conjures up images of slavery when you say you own one.

In general you can only exlude gain on the sale of your principal residence, and then only if you've both owned and lived in it for 2 of the 5 years immediately preceding the sale. There's an article in the FAQ.

When one sells rental property it's possible to defer the gain by doing a section 1031 exchange, but without knowing the nature of this property and the nature of your in-laws' occupancy, I don't know whether that would be possible.

TMF ExRO
Phil Marti
Print the post Back To Top
Advertisement