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Since this expense of $13,653 is health insurance I think I should be able to deduct it as such in the year that we are actually spending it -- 2018 -- even though it was incurred in 2017. That follows the rule that a deduction is taken in the year the money is spent (which I used for various health care bills that I incurred in late 2014 but weren't billed until 2015).

Does that make sense?


Your argument makes sense but you can't assume that a logical argument is accurate for tax law. Tax law is as enacted. Consistency and logic may not apply.

AJ has a history of being correct.
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