Sir TasYou are right about asset allocation. What if our S&P 500 retiree retired on January 1, 2000 and commenced taking distributions at a 4% rate? Since he is 100% in S&P 500 and that market gauge was essentially flat for the decade, wouldn't our retiree have lost much of his original account balance, and continuing his original withdrawal rate in dollars, be looking toward zero?
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