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Locke also asserts that government “in the consent of the people” is the only lawful government.

Is that the consent of the people governed (that is, all the people), or just something like a majority of the people?

It's hard to imagine any government having consent of all the people, and nearly as hard to imagine having even consent of the majority. For example, if People A want Government A, People B want Government B, and People C want Government C, and if each group of people is roughly 1/3rd the population being governed, then no government has the consent of a majority.

I guess it partly depends on what you mean by "consent"... I assume it means a freely-given acceptance with no coercion of any sort. I'd think the biggest problem is the people born after the government is established. They certainly have not "consented" to that government. And the possibility of coercion (inherent or applied) is very high. If you say someone can leave the country if they don't support it, that's a pretty high level of coercion to my mind.

He also speaks of “just and natural rights”.

By which he means "just and natural rights as ordained by Locke". There's possibly not another person on the planet who had exactly the same list in mind of "just and natural rights" as Locke... or as anyone else.

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