The article makes no sense. Estate taxes are assessed based on the rates in effect in the year of death applied to the taxable portion of the estate. The individual who sold is already dead. The stock held in the estate gets a step up in basis at the date of death. The only capital gains tax that would apply is to appreciation between the date of death and liquidation of the position. I'm not getting how this repurchase is some great tax avoidance move but not being a billionaire with tax accountants on staff I may be missing something.
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