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The author points out how the phrase "acts of terror" was most plausibly referring to the original 9/11 attacks. At best, it's completely unclear whether he is referring directly to the Libya attack.


Why didn't Romney simply point out Obama's mendacity?

Rather than trying to parse one-day-later versus fourteen-days-later, why did Romney create more confusion by trying to question which acts of terror Obama had referred to?

Seems like an awfully small needle to thread for not much political gain.
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