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Well, as stated in my original post, I was asked to asnswer this question and do not know. I could not find a web answer. Common law, etc not the issue here. But, to further explain, it seems to evolve/involve a particular property acquistion (date of) and the{community}{inheritance} property laws of Texas - was it hers/his before the marriage? With perhaps some small but important bit of time between the license issuance and the marriage ceremony. Funny how little things might become important......

Well, this isn't a question for an anonymous message board if it has that much of an impact. You, or whoever needs the answer, should be talking to an attorney down in Texas.
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