What are you basing this statement on?
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Primarily the opening statement...

Fructose changes brain to cause overeating, scientists say...

Oh. So given the entire post you referenced, your comment was misleading. I assumed since you referenced an entire post and didn't provide any explanation, that you were truly referring to the entire post--including the actual article abstract.


Glucose directly activates the satiety centers. Fructose does not activate them
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A Straw Man argument as folk simply don't consume beverages that're either 100% glucose or 100% fructose in the normal course of events. Anyone who wishes to test the veracity of this statement for themselves should give it a try.

No one said people DO consume beverages that are 100% one or the other. Nor was this study out of touch with reality. The drinks used in this study were reality-based -- "sweetened with" one or the other. And fMRI imaging was done before and after consumption of each one. And there are so many foods sweetened with fructose. That is the point.


sheila