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Good Day all Fools,

My question:

I have an associate who is a contractor for our organization. He told me this:

Every three years my organization switches contracting companies, and consequently, he has to be hired by the new company and move from the old to the new company. In that move, he says he has to give up a portion of the 401(k) that the old company had contributed because he was not fully vested. He thinks that is wrong (as I do) and wonders if he has to give up that portion of the 401(k) because of an involuntary move or relocation?

Does that make sense and is there a source of information that someone can point us to?

Many thanks,

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